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PRMIA 8008 Exam Syllabus Topics:

PRMIA PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition Sample Questions:

Question 1

A risk analyst uses the GARCH model to forecast volatility, and the parameters he uses are = 0.001%, = 0.05 and = 0.93. Yesterday's daily volatility was calculated to be 1%. What is the long term annual volatility under the analyst's model?

A. 7.94 %
B. 0.22 %
C. 0.25 %
D. 3.54 %

Question 2

Which of the following statements is a correct description of the phrase present value of a basis point?

A. It refers to the discounted present value of 1/100th of 1% of a future cash flow
B. It refers to the present value impact of 1 basis point move in an interest rate on a fixed income security
C. It is another name for duration
D. It is the principal component representation of the duration of a bond

Question 3

For credit risk calculations, correlation between the asset values of two issuers is often proxied with:

A. Default correlations
B. Equity correlations
C. Transition probabilities
D. Credit migration matrices

Question 4

Which of the following cannot be used to address the issue of heavy tails when modeling market returns

A. EVT
B. Normal mixtures
C. Student's t-distribution
D. EWMA

Question 5

Calculate the 1-year 99% credit VaR of a portfolio of two bonds, each with a value of $1m, and the probability of default of 1% each over the next year. Assume the recovery rate to be zero, and the defaults of the two bonds to be uncorrelated to each other.

A. 0
B. 20000
C. 1980000
D. 980000

Solutions: