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NEW QUESTION # 20
A pharmaceutical company needs a hub-and-spoke VPN topology. The design must be capable of building either partial or full mesh overlay networks. Which VPN solution must be implemented in the environment?
- A. crypto maps
- B. L2TP
- C. SSL VPN
- D. DMVPN
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the context of theDesigning Cisco Security Infrastructure (300-745 SDSI)blueprint,Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)is the specialized architectural solution designed for scalable hub-and-spoke topologies that require the flexibility to evolve into partial or full mesh overlays. DMVPN leverages a combination of Multipoint GRE (mGRE) tunnels, Next Hop Resolution Protocol (NHRP), and IPsec encryption to create a dynamic environment.
The primary advantage of DMVPN is its ability to establish "on-demand" tunnels between spoke sites. In a traditional hub-and-spoke model, traffic between two spokes must transit the hub, which introduces latency and increases hub resource consumption. With DMVPN, spokes can use NHRP to discover the public IP addresses of other spokes and build direct tunnels between them automatically. This allows the pharmaceutical company to maintain a simple hub-and-spoke management model while benefiting from the performance of afull meshwhen traffic patterns demand it.
WhileSSL VPNs(Option D) andL2TP(Option B) are excellent for individual remote access, they are not designed for site-to-site mesh scalability.Crypto maps(Option C) represent the legacy method of building IPsec tunnels, which requires static, manual configuration of every peer relationship-making a full mesh practically impossible to manage at scale. DMVPN fulfills the Cisco SDSI objective of designing highly available and flexible secure infrastructure by automating the complexity of large-scale tunnel management.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Employees in a healthcare organization could not access their devices when they returned to work after the weekend. The security team discovered that a threat actor had encrypted the devices. Which security solution would mitigate the risk in future?
- A. endpoint detection and response
- B. password policy enforcement
- C. data loss prevention
- D. network configuration management
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the scenario described, the healthcare organization fell victim to aransomware attack, where devices were encrypted to extort the organization. To mitigate such risks in the future,Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)is the essential architectural component. According to the Cisco SDSI Secure Infrastructure domain, protecting endpoints requires more than just traditional antivirus; it necessitates a solution that provides deep visibility into file behavior and process execution.
A robust EDR solution, such asCisco Secure Endpoint, continuously monitors all activity on the device.
When ransomware attempts to initiate its encryption process, the EDR can detect the malicious behavioral pattern in real-time. It can then take automated actions, such as isolating the infected host from the network and "stopping" the encryption process before it spreads. Furthermore, Cisco's EDR providesretrospective security, allowing administrators to see how the malware arrived and which other devices it touched. While Option A (Password Policies) helps prevent credential theft and Option C (DLP) prevents data theft, they do not stop the technical process of disk encryption. Only EDR provides the necessary detection and automated response capabilities to handle modern file-less and polymorphic malware threats effectively. This aligns with the Cisco SAFE goal of securing the endpoint layer against advanced persistent threats (APTs) and ransomware variants.
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NEW QUESTION # 22
Which tool is used to collect, analyze, and visualize logs from network devices, endpoints, and other sources in an enterprise?
- A. Cisco Email Security Appliance
- B. Cloud Observability
- C. Splunk
- D. Cisco Web Security Appliance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Splunk is a SIEM and log management tool used to collect, analyze, and visualize logs from diverse sources such as network devices, endpoints, and applications. It provides centralized visibility for security monitoring and incident response.
NEW QUESTION # 23
A financial company uses a remote access solution that directs all traffic over a secure tunnel.
The company recently received some large ISP bills from the headcounter location. According to traffic analysis during the investigation, most of the network traffic was due to employees spending a lot of time on video conferences provided by a SaaS collaboration company. What must the company modify to reduce the cost without negatively impacting security or employee experience?
- A. Block the video conferencing app when connected on VPN.
- B. Reduce the video resolution size permitted within the SaaS application.
- C. Split-exclude the video SaaS application from the VPN.
- D. Suggest users to disconnect from the VPN when on video calls.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Split-exclusion allows trusted SaaS traffic (such as video conferencing) to bypass the VPN tunnel while keeping all other traffic secured. This reduces bandwidth costs at the headend location without degrading security or employee experience, since traffic to the SaaS provider is still encrypted natively.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which financial reporting regulatory framework must a publicly traded company doing business in the US comply with?
- A. FEDRAMP
- B. SOC
- C. HIPAA
- D. SOX
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheSarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX)is a mandatory federal law that all publicly traded companies in the United States must comply with to ensure the accuracy and reliability of their corporate financial reporting.
Within theCisco Security Infrastructure (300-745 SDSI)framework, SOX is a critical driver for designing secure architectures, particularly regardingaccess control, data integrity, and auditing. Sections 302 and
404 of the act are of particular importance to IT security teams, as they mandate that corporate officers certify the effectiveness of internal controls over financial reporting.
To satisfy SOX requirements, a security designer must implement robust logging and monitoring to ensure that financial data cannot be altered without authorization. Technologies such asCisco Identity Services Engine (ISE)for role-based access control andCisco XDRfor centralized visibility are often utilized to provide the necessary audit trails. UnlikeHIPAA(Option A), which focuses on protected health information, or FedRAMP(Option D), which applies to cloud service providers for the federal government, SOX is a broad financial regulatory requirement. WhileSOC(Option C) reports (such as SOC 2) are independent auditing standards often requested by businesses to verify service provider controls, they are not the federal law itself.
Therefore, SOX remains the primary regulatory framework governing the security and integrity of financial reporting systems for public entities in the U.S.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which tool is used to collect, analyze, and visualize logs from network devices, endpoints, and other sources in an enterprise?
- A. Cisco Email Security Appliance
- B. Cloud Observability
- C. Splunk
- D. Cisco Web Security Appliance
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the architectural design of a modern Security Operations Center (SOC), visibility is paramount.Splunkis a leading Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) and log management platform used to aggregate data from disparate sources across the enterprise. According to theCisco SDSI v1.0objectives, specifically within the "Risk, Events, and Requirements" domain, a central repository for telemetry is essential for incident response and threat hunting.
Splunk collects logs, metrics, and other data from network devices (firewalls, switches, routers), endpoints (laptops, servers), and cloud applications. It then indexes this data, allowing security analysts to perform complex searches, create visualizations, and build dashboards that provide a real-time view of the organization's security posture.
While Cisco offers native tools likeCisco Secure Cloud AnalyticsorCloud Observability(Option B) for specific cloud and application performance monitoring, Splunk serves as the broader "single pane of glass" for the entire infrastructure.Cisco Email Security Appliance(Option A) andCisco Web Security Appliance (Option C) are specialized security engines thatgeneratelogs but do not function as the overarching collection and analysis platform for the entire enterprise. By integrating Cisco security products with Splunk, organizations can correlate events-such as a blocked web request from a WSA and a malware alert from a Secure Endpoint-to identify a coordinated attack, fulfilling the Cisco SAFE requirement for pervasive visibility.
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NEW QUESTION # 26
Which generative AI impact is addressed by a human-in-the-loop design policy?
- A. scale changes
- B. phishing
- C. deep fakes
- D. AI hallucinations
Answer: D
Explanation:
A human-in-the-loop design policy ensures that humans validate or oversee AI-generated outputs, reducing the risk of AI hallucinations (false or misleading information generated by AI).
This provides accountability and accuracy in generative AI use.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A construction company recently introduced a BYOD policy, where contractors can bring personal devices and connect to the wireless network. The network engineer configured a Wi-Fi network with a guest splash page to provide internet access only. Although the policy was limited to wireless devices, contractors started bringing devices that needed wired connections without authorization and connecting to the network. The network team suggested shutting down ports where unauthorized devices are connected. Which technology must be implemented to ensure that wired and wireless devices are granted network access only after successful authentication?
- A. VxLANs
- B. private VLANs
- C. VACLs
- D. 802.1x
Answer: D
Explanation:
To secure both wired and wireless access points against unauthorized devices, the industry-standard framework isIEEE 802.1x. This technology provides port-based network access control (PNAC), ensuring that no traffic-wired or wireless-is forwarded by the switch or access point until the device or user has been successfully authenticated by a central authority, typically a RADIUS server likeCisco Identity Services Engine (ISE).
In an 802.1x architecture, the device (Supplicant) must provide valid credentials or certificates to the switch
/AP (Authenticator). The Authenticator then communicates with the Authentication Server to verify the identity. If authentication fails, the port remains in a "closed" state, effectively preventing the unauthorized
"rogue" wired connections mentioned in the scenario. This approach is far more scalable and dynamic than manually shutting down ports or usingVACLs(Option C), which are static filters based on IP or MAC addresses.VxLANs(Option A) are used for network virtualization and overlay tunneling, whilePrivate VLANs(Option B) provide Layer 2 isolation within a subnet but do not verify identity. By implementing
802.1x, the construction company establishes a robust "gatekeeper" at the hardware level, satisfying the Cisco SDSI objective of securing the network edge through identity-based access control for a diverse set of devices.
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NEW QUESTION # 28
A restaurant distribution center recently suffered a password spray attack targeting the Cisco Secure Firepower Threat Defense VPN headend. The attack attempts to gain unauthorized access by trying common passwords across many accounts. The attack poses a significant security threat to the organization's remote access infrastructure. To enhance the security of the VPN setup and minimize the risk of similar attacks in the future, the IT security team must implement effective mitigation measures. Which technique effectively reduces the risk of this type of attack?
- A. Disable group aliases in the connection profiles.
- B. Change the AAA authentication method from RADIUS to TACACS+.
- C. Enable AAA authentication for the DefaultWEBVPN and DefaultRAGroup Connection Profiles.
- D. Implement an access list to block addresses from the previous password spray attack.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the context of Designing Cisco Security Infrastructure, protecting Remote Access VPN (RAVPN) against brute-force and password spray attacks is a critical objective. On Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) and Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) platforms, theDefaultWEBVPNGroupandDefaultRAGroupare the landing points for any connection request that does not specify a valid Group Alias or Group URL. Attackers frequently target these default profiles because they are often left with "None" as the authentication method, allowing the attacker to probe for valid usernames without immediate rejection.
By selectingOption D, the security designer ensures that any attempt to access the VPN via these default profiles requires valid AAA credentials. According to Cisco's hardened design guides, it is best practice to point these default profiles to a "sinkhole" AAA server or a local database with no users. This forces the password spray attack to fail at the initial authentication phase before any sensitive information is leaked or unauthorized access is granted. While Option A (ACLs) provides a temporary fix, it is ineffective against distributed attacks using rotating IP addresses. Option B (Disabling aliases) is a good obfuscation technique but doesn't stop an attacker from hitting the default profile. Option D provides a structural mitigation that aligns with theCisco SAFEarchitectural principle of reducing the attack surface by securing every possible entry vector into the private infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which tool is used by SOC analyst to quarantine an endpoint?
- A. load balancer
- B. flow collector
- C. syslog
- D. Cisco XDR
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco XDR (Extended Detection and Response) gives SOC analysts the ability to detect, investigate, and quarantine compromised endpoints. It integrates telemetry across endpoints, network, and cloud, enabling coordinated response actions.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Refer to the exhibit.
A software developer noticed that the application source code had been found on the internet. To avoid such an incident from happening again, the developer applied a DLP policy to prevent from uploading source code into generative AI tool like ChatGPT. When testing the policy, the developer noticed that it is still possible for the source code to be uploaded. Which action must the developer take to prevent this issue?
- A. Move the ChatGPT Source Code rule to the bottom.
- B. Enable the rule.
- C. Modify the data classifications.
- D. Change the DLP action from Monitor to Block.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the provided exhibit of theCisco Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Policyinterface (likely within Cisco Umbrella or a similar cloud security gateway), the reason for the policy's failure to stop the upload is clearly visible in the "Action" column. The rule named"ChatGPT Source Code"is currently configured with the action set toMonitor.
According to theCisco SDSI v1.0objectives regarding application and data security, theMonitoraction is designed for visibility and auditing. It allows the traffic to pass through while generating a log entry for security analysts to review. This is often used during an initial "discovery" phase to understand how data is moving without disrupting business processes. However, to fulfill the requirement ofpreventingthe unauthorized upload of sensitive data-such as application source code-the policy must be enforcement- centric.
By selectingOption D, the developer changes the action from "Monitor" toBlock. In "Block" mode, the DLP engine will actively intercept the web request to ChatGPT, inspect the content for "Source Code" classifications, and drop the connection if a match is found, thereby preventing the data from leaving the corporate environment. While moving rules (Option B) can resolve conflicts if a "Block" rule is superseded by an "Allow" rule higher in the list, the primary issue here is the non-restrictive action of the specific rule itself. Modifying data classifications (Option C) is unnecessary if the engine is already correctly identifying the source code, as evidenced by the successful monitoring logs mentioned in the scenario. Changing the action to Block is the definitive step to ensure data integrity and prevent intellectual property theft.
NEW QUESTION # 31
An IT company experienced the spread of malicious content between user endpoints, which impacted business critical resources. The company wants to implement a solution to control communication between individual endpoints on the network. Which approach achieves the goal?
- A. profiling
- B. TrustSec
- C. RADIUS
- D. posture
Answer: B
Explanation:
The spread of malicious content between endpoints is a classic case oflateral movement. To control and restrict communication between individual endpoints-regardless of their physical location or IP address- Cisco TrustSecis the recommended architectural approach. TrustSec moves away from traditional, IP-based Access Control Lists (ACLs), which are difficult to manage and scale, and instead usesScalable Group Tags (SGTs).
With TrustSec, every endpoint is assigned an SGT based on its role or security context (e.g., "Employee,"
"Contractor," or "HR"). Security policies are then defined in a centralized matrix (the egress policy matrix) that dictates which SGTs can talk to one another. For example, a policy can be set so that endpoints in the
"Developer" group cannot communicate directly with endpoints in the "Sales" group, effectively preventing malware from hopping between machines. WhileRADIUS(Option A) is the protocol used for authentication, it does not perform the segmentation itself.Posture(Option C) checks the health of the device, andProfiling (Option D) identifies what the device is, but neither provides the policy-based traffic control of TrustSec. By implementing TrustSec, the company achievesmicro-segmentation, significantly reducing the internal attack surface and containing potential breaches within a single group, which is a core goal of modern secure infrastructure design.
NEW QUESTION # 32
A telecommunications company recently introduced a hybrid working model. Based on the new policy, employees can work remotely for 2 days per week if corporate equipment is used. The IT department is preparing corporate laptops to support users during the remote working days.
Which solution must the IT department implement that provides secure connectivity to corporate resources and protects sensitive corporate data even if a laptop is stolen?
- A. Secure Client
- B. Cisco Duo
- C. Umbrella
- D. ISE Posture
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco Secure Client (formerly AnyConnect) provides secure remote connectivity through VPN, ensuring encrypted access to corporate resources. It also integrates endpoint security features, protecting sensitive corporate data even if a laptop is stolen.
NEW QUESTION # 33
A bank experienced challenges with compromised endpoints gaining access to the internal network. To enhance security, the bank wants to ensure that all endpoints are scanned for compliance checks before being allowed to access the network. Which action achieves the level of security and control?
- A. Set up data loss prevention policy.
- B. Implement Posture validation using Cisco ISE.
- C. Use MFA using Cisco DUO.
- D. Configure TrustSec using Cisco ISE.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In high-security environments like banking, simply verifying a user's identity is insufficient; the "health" or security state of the device must also be validated.Posture validation, implemented throughCisco Identity Services Engine (ISE), is the specific architectural process used to ensure an endpoint meets the organization's security requirements-such as having an active antivirus, the latest OS patches, or disk encryption enabled-before it is granted access to the internal network.
When an endpoint connects, Cisco ISE triggers a posture check (often via the Cisco Secure Client agent). If the device is found to be non-compliant (e.g., outdated signatures), ISE can move the endpoint into a restricted quarantineVLAN where it can only access remediation servers to update its software. Only after a successful re-scan shows the device is compliant is the network access policy updated to allow full internal connectivity.
This effectively prevents compromised or "dirty" endpoints from spreading threats laterally across the bank's network. WhileMFA(Option A) secures the user's identity andTrustSec(Option B) provides segmentation, only Posture validation addresses the technical compliance of the endpoint hardware and software itself.Data Loss Prevention(Option C) is focused on data transit rather than initial network admission control.
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NEW QUESTION # 34
A financial company is focused on proactively protecting sensitive data stored on the devices. The company recognizes the potential risks associated with lost or stolen devices and they want a solution to ensure that if unauthorized user access the device, the data it contains is not accessible or misused. The solution includes implementing a strategy that renders data unreadable without user authentication. Which solution meets the requirement?
- A. Install Kensington Lock.
- B. Implement data encryption on disk.
- C. Apply GPS tracking.
- D. Use a BIOS password.
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a financial company, protecting "data at rest" is a critical requirement of the Cisco Security Infrastructure blueprint. While physical security and BIOS-level protections have their place,Data encryption on disk(such as BitLocker, FileVault, or hardware-encrypted drives) is the only solution that fulfills the requirement of rendering the actual data unreadable if the device is lost or stolen.
Disk encryption uses cryptographic algorithms to transform readable data into ciphertext. Without the correct decryption key-which is typically released only after successful user authentication-the data remains a meaningless string of characters even if the hard drive is removed and connected to a different machine. A Kensington Lock(Option A) is a physical deterrent to prevent theft but does not protect the data if the lock is cut or the device is stolen. ABIOS password(Option B) can prevent the OS from booting but does not stop an attacker from reading the data directly from the storage media.GPS tracking(Option D) helps in recovery but does not prevent unauthorized data access in the interim. Implementing full-disk encryption aligns with the Cisco SAFEprinciple of pervasive data protection and ensures compliance with financial regulations regarding the safeguarding of sensitive client information on mobile endpoints.
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NEW QUESTION # 35
In preparation for an upcoming security audit, a metal production company decided to enhance the security of container-based services running in a Kubernetes environment. The company wants to ensure that all communications between applications and services are encrypted. The administrator plans to implement mTLS service between application and services to secure the data exchanges. Given the need to manage encryption at scale and maintain efficient communication across the cluster, which network transport technology must be employed?
- A. Kubernetes network policies
- B. Service Mesh
- C. load balancing
- D. ingress controller
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Service Mesh provides built-in support for mutual TLS (mTLS) between microservices, ensuring encrypted communication at scale in Kubernetes environments. It also centralizes management of certificates, keys, and security policies, making it the right choice for securing data exchanges across the cluster.
NEW QUESTION # 36
How does a SOC leverage flow collectors?
- A. It provides real-time content filtering.
- B. It performs load balancing capabilities across systems to optimize performance.
- C. It performs data backup and recovery.
- D. It provides data for analysis in threat detection and response system.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Aflow collector(such asCisco Secure Network Analytics, formerly Stealthwatch) is a critical tool within a Security Operations Center (SOC) for providing "pervasive visibility" into the network. Instead of capturing every full packet-which is resource-intensive-a flow collector ingests NetFlow or IPFIX data, which contains metadata like source/destination IPs, ports, and the volume of data transferred.
The SOC leverages this data forthreat detection and responseby establishing a baseline of normal network behavior. When a flow collector identifies an anomaly-such as an endpoint suddenly sending gigabytes of data to an unusual external IP (data exfiltration) or scanning internal ports (lateral movement)-it flags the incident for analysis. UnlikeReal-time content filtering(Option D), which happens at the gateway (e.g., Cisco Umbrella or WSA), flow collectors provide a historical record and behavioral analysis ofallinternal and external traffic. They do not performload balancing(Option B) orbackup/recovery(Option A). In the Cisco SDSI framework, flow analysis is essential for identifying the "unknown unknowns" and providing the forensic evidence needed to understand the scope and path of a security breach.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A healthcare organization in the United States recently discovered that a highly confidential report name Records ______ that includes patient records name Patient_Medical_Records _____ was accessed by unauthorized personnel internally. The breach occurred due to lack of protection measures in place for patient electronic medical records. Which regulatory compliance is directly appropriate and must be adopted?
- A. FERPA
- B. HIPAA
- C. PCI DSS
- D. FISMA
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is the U.S. regulation that governs the protection of patient medical records and electronic health information. Since the breach involved unauthorized access to patient medical records, HIPAA compliance is directly required.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A manufacturing company experienced a security breach that resulted in sales data being compromised. An engineer participating in the investigation must identify who logged into the sales system during the affected period. Which approach must be used to gather the information?
- A. NACM
- B. PKI
- C. SNMP
- D. AAA
Answer: D
Explanation:
AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) provides accounting logs that record who logged in, when, and from where. During an investigation, these logs allow the security team to trace user logins to the sales system and identify who accessed it during the breach period.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A global marketing firm, based in California with customers on every continent, suffered a data breach that exposed employee and customer PII. Which regulations is the company in danger of violating?
- A. GDPR
- B. ISO27001
- C. FedRamp
- D. ISO SP800-53
Answer: A
Explanation:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data privacy law in the European Union (EU) that has a significant global reach. For a California-based marketing firm with customers on every continent, any breach involving the Personally Identifiable Information (PII) of European residents triggers immediate and severe legal exposure under GDPR. This regulation is unique because of its extraterritorial application; it mandates that any entity-regardless of its physical headquarters-must comply if they offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, individuals located within the EU.
In the event of a data breach, GDPR requires organizations to notify the relevant supervisory authority within
72 hours and, in cases of high risk, notify the affected individuals without undue delay. Failure to implement adequate technical and organizational measures to protect data can result in astronomical fines of up to €20 million or 4% of annual global turnover, whichever is higher. While other frameworks like NIST SP 800-53 (often confused with ISO in Option A) or ISO 27001 (Option D) provide the architectural standards and controls to prevent such incidents, they are voluntary standards or frameworks, not legally binding regulations that a company "violates" in the same sense as GDPR. FedRAMP (Option B) is specific to US federal government cloud service providers and would not typically apply to a private marketing firm's global operations. Thus, GDPR represents the primary regulatory threat for a global firm handling international PII.
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NEW QUESTION # 40
A technology company recently onboarded a new customer in the medical space. The customer needs a solution to provide data integrity across remote sites. Which solution must be used to meet this requirement?
- A. data masking
- B. preshared key
- C. authentication
- D. hashing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hashing ensures data integrity by generating a fixed-length value (hash) for data. When data is transmitted between remote sites, the hash can be recalculated and compared to verify that the data has not been altered in transit.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A product manager is focused on maintaining the security integrity of a microservice-based application as new features are developed and integrated. To ensure that known software vulnerabilities are not introduced into the product, it is crucial to implement a robust application security technique. The technique must be applied during the build phase of the software development lifecycle, which allows the team to proactively identify and address vulnerability risks before deployment. Which application security technique must be applied to accomplish the goal?
- A. secret detection
- B. container scanning
- C. infrastructure as code scanning
- D. Open API specification analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a microservices-based architecture, applications are typically packaged into containers to ensure consistency across different environments. According to theDesigning Cisco Security Infrastructure (SDSI) objectives, securing the software development lifecycle (SDLC) requires integrating security checks as far
"left" as possible.Container scanningis the specific technique used during the build phase to inspect container images for known software vulnerabilities (CVEs) within the bundled libraries, binaries, and dependencies.
When a developer initiates a build, the container scanning tool cross-references the layers of the image against vulnerability databases. If a high-risk vulnerability is detected in a base image or a third-party library, the build can be automatically failed, preventing the vulnerable code from ever reaching the registry or production environment. This directly addresses the product manager's goal of ensuring known vulnerabilities are not introduced. WhileSecret Detection(Option A) is vital for finding leaked API keys or passwords, and Infrastructure as Code (IaC) scanning(Option C) ensures the environment configuration is secure, neither specifically targets the software vulnerabilities within the application package itself. Similarly,Open API specification analysis(Option D) focuses on the contract and security of the interface rather than the underlying software vulnerabilities. By implementing container scanning, organizations align with Cisco's DevSecOps framework, which emphasizes automated, policy-driven security within the CI/CD pipeline to maintain the integrity of cloud-native applications.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which function does a DLP system perform when protecting application data?
- A. Redirects packets to edge firewalls
- B. Inspects routing tables
- C. Enforces policy compliance by inspecting data in transit
- D. Provides segmentation using VLANs
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system inspects data in transit (and at rest or in use) to ensure sensitive information is handled according to security policies.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which Cisco product provides automated incident response workflows integrated with SIEM and SOAR platforms?
- A. Cisco DNA Center
- B. Cisco SecureX
- C. Cisco Catalyst
- D. Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco SecureX integrates multiple security tools with SIEM and SOAR platforms and provides automated incident response workflows to speed up detection, investigation, and remediation.
NEW QUESTION # 44
An oil and gas company recently faced a security breach when an employee's notepad, which contained critical login credentials, was stolen. The incident led to unauthorized access to a user account, which posed a significant risk to sensitive company data and operations. The company wants to adopt a security measure that enhances user account protection. Which action must be taken to prevent breaches like this from happening in the future?
- A. Implement MFA
- B. Configure a password expiration policy.
- C. Update the RADIUS server.
- D. Implement single sign-on.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario described-where physical theft of written credentials led to a breach-is a classic failure of single-factor authentication. To mitigate this risk, the company must implementMulti-Factor Authentication (MFA). MFA requires users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access to a resource, typically categorized as something you know (password), something you have (a smartphone or hardware token), or something you are (biometrics).
According to Cisco Security Infrastructure design best practices, MFA (such asCisco Duo) ensures that even if an attacker possesses valid credentials (the "something you know" from the stolen notepad), they cannot gain access without the second factor (the "something you have"). This effectively neutralizes the threat of stolen passwords.Single Sign-On (SSO)(Option B) improves user experience and centralizes management but does not, by itself, stop an attacker who has the master password.Updating the RADIUS server(Option C) is a maintenance task that doesn't change the authentication logic, and apassword expiration policy(Option D) would only limit the "shelf life" of the stolen credentials rather than preventing their initial use. MFA is the most robust architectural control for enhancing identity security and is a core pillar of a Zero Trust framework.
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NEW QUESTION # 45
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