
CISM PDF Dumps 2024 Exam Questions with Practice Test
Dumps for Free CISM Practice Exam Questions
ISACA CISM (Certified Information Security Manager) certification exam is designed for individuals who want to demonstrate their knowledge and expertise in information security management. Certified Information Security Manager certification exam is administered by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), which is a global association of professionals in the field of information technology governance, security, and assurance. The CISM certification exam is highly respected and recognized in the industry, and it is designed to evaluate an individual's ability to manage, design, and oversee an organization's information security program.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following actions should be taken when an online trading company discovers a network attack in progress?
- A. Isolate the affected network segment
- B. Enable trace logging on all event
- C. Dump all event logs to removable media
- D. Shut off all network access points
Answer: A
Explanation:
Isolating the affected network segment will mitigate the immediate threat while allowing unaffected portions of the business to continue processing. Shutting off all network access points would create a denial of service that could result in loss of revenue. Dumping event logs and enabling trace logging, while perhaps useful, would not mitigate the immediate threat posed by the network attack.
NEW QUESTION # 107
In an organization, the responsibilities for IT security are clearly assigned and enforced and an IT security risk and impact analysis is consistently performed. This represents which level of ranking in the information security governance maturity model?
- A. Managed
- B. Defined
- C. Repeatable
- D. Optimized
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Boards of directors and executive management can use the information security governance maturity model to establish rankings for security in their organizations. The ranks are nonexistent, initial, repeatable, defined, managed and optimized. When the responsibilities for IT security in an organization are clearly assigned and enforced and an IT security risk and impact analysis is consistently performed, it is said to be 'managed and measurable.'
NEW QUESTION # 108
A business partner of a factory has remote read-only access to material inventory to forecast future acquisition orders. An information security manager should PRIMARILY ensure that there is:
- A. a service level agreement (SLA) including code escrow.
- B. a business impact analysis (BIA).
- C. an effective control over connectivity and continuity.
- D. a third-party certification.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The principal risk focus is the connection procedures to maintain continuity in case of any contingency.
Although an information security manager may be interested in the service level agreement (SLA), code escrow is not a concern. A business impact analysis (BIA) refers to contingency planning and not to system access. Third-party certification does not provide any assurance of controls over connectivity to maintain continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 109
The configuration management plan should PRIMARILY be based upon input from:
- A. the security steering committee.
- B. business process owners.
- C. the information security manager.
- D. IT senior management.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Although business process owners, an information security manager and the security steering committee may provide input regarding a configuration management plan, its final approval is the primary responsibility of IT senior management.
NEW QUESTION # 110
An organization is considering the deployment of encryption software and systems organization-wide.
The MOST important consideration should be whether:
- A. the implementation supports the business strategy.
- B. data can be recovered if the encryption keys are misplaced.
- C. a classification policy has been developed to incorporate the need for encryption,
- D. the business strategy includes exceptions to the encryption standard.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 111
The organization has decided to outsource the majority of the IT department with a vendor that is hosting servers in a foreign country. Of the following, which is the MOST critical security consideration?
- A. A security breach notification might get delayed due to the time difference.
- B. Additional network intrusion detection sensors should be installed, resulting in an additional cost.
- C. The company could lose physical control over the server and be unable to monitor the physical security posture of the servers.
- D. Laws and regulations of the country of origin may not be enforceable in the foreign country.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A company is held to the local laws and regulations of the country in which the company resides, even if the company decides to place servers with a vendor that hosts the servers in a foreign country. A potential violation of local laws applicable to the company might not be recognized or rectified (i.e., prosecuted) due to the lack of knowledge of the local laws that are applicable and the inability to enforce the laws. Option B is not a problem. Time difference does not play a role in a 24/7 environment. Pagers, cellular phones, telephones, etc. are usually available to communicate notifications. Option C is a manageable problem that requires additional funding, but can be addressed. Option D is a problem that can be addressed. Most hosting providers have standardized the level of physical security that is in place. Regular physical audits or a SAS 70 report can address such concerns.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following steps in conducting a risk assessment should be performed FIRST?
- A. Evaluate key controls
- B. Identity business assets
- C. Identify business risks
- D. Assess vulnerabilities
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION RISK MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
Risk assessment first requires one to identify the business assets that need to be protected before identifying the threats. The next step is to establish whether those threats represent business risk by identifying the likelihood and effect of occurrence, followed by assessing the vulnerabilities that may affect the security of the asset. This process establishes the control objectives against which key controls can be evaluated.
NEW QUESTION # 113
Of the following, who should have PRIMARY responsibility for assessing the security risk associated with an outsourced cloud provider contract?
- A. Information security manager
- B. Chief information officer
- C. Service delivery manager
- D. Compliance manager
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following BEST enables a more efficient incident reporting process?
- A. Training end users to identify abnormal events
- B. Educating the incident response team on escalation procedures
- C. Training executive management for communication with external entities
- D. Educating IT teams on compliance requirements
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: INCIDENT MANAGEMENT AND RESPONSE
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of the following are likely to be updated MOST frequently?
- A. Standards for document retention and destruction
- B. Procedures for hardening database servers
- C. Standards for password length and complexity
- D. Policies addressing information security governance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY GOVERNANCE
Explanation:
Policies and standards should generally be more static and less subject to frequent change. Procedures on the other hand, especially with regard to the hardening of operating systems, will be subject to constant change; as operating systems change and evolve, the procedures for hardening will have to keep pace.
NEW QUESTION # 116
The PRIMARY objective of a post-incident review of an information security incident is to:
- A. prevent recurrence.
- B. determine the impact
- C. minimize impact
- D. update the risk profile
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary objective of a post-incident review of an information security incident is to identify the root cause of the incident and determine what can be done to prevent a similar incident from happening in the future. This process helps organizations to learn from past incidents and make improvements to their security posture to reduce the risk of future incidents. By conducting a thorough post-incident review, organizations can identify areas for improvement in their security controls, policies, and procedures, and implement changes to prevent similar incidents from happening in the future. Other important objectives of a post-incident review may include updating the risk profile, minimizing impact, and determining the impact of the incident, but the main focus should be on identifying ways to prevent recurrence.
NEW QUESTION # 117
The criticality of an information asset is derived from its:
- A. frequency of use.
- B. threat level
- C. replacement cost
- D. business value
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 118
An information security manager is developing evidence preservation procedures for an incident response plan. Which of the following would be the BEST source of guidance for requirements associated with the procedures?
- A. IT management
- B. Legal counsel
- C. Data owners
- D. Executive management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: INCIDENT MANAGEMENT AND RESPONSE
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following BEST indicates senior management support for an information security program?
- A. Risk assessments are conducted frequently by the information security team.
- B. The information security manager meets regularly with the lines of business.
- C. Detailed information security policies are established and regularly reviewed.
- D. Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined for the information security program.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which resource is the MOST effective in preventing physical access tailgating/piggybacking?
- A. Photo identification
- B. Card key door locks
- C. Awareness training
- D. Biometric scanners
Answer: C
Explanation:
Awareness training would most likely result in any attempted tailgating being challenged by the authorized employee. Choices A, B and D are physical controls that, by themselves, would not be effective against tailgating.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with a bring your own device (BYOD) program?
- A. Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution.
- B. Provide employee training on secure mobile device practices
- C. Require employees to install an effective anti-malware app.
- D. Implement a mobile device policy and standard.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to reduce the risk associated with a bring your own device (BYOD) program is to implement a mobile device policy and standard. This policy should include guidelines and rules regarding the use of mobile devices, such as acceptable use guidelines and restrictions on the types of data that can be stored or accessed on the device. Additionally, it should also include requirements for secure mobile device practices, such as the use of strong passwords, encryption, and regular patching. A mobile device management (MDM) solution can also be implemented to help ensure mobile devices meet the organizational security requirements. However, it is not enough to simply implement the policy and MDM solution; employees must also be trained on the secure mobile device practices to ensure the policy is followed.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the process for granting access to new employees is standardized and meets organizational security requirements?
- A. Embed the authorization and creation of accounts with HR onboarding procedures.
- B. Require managers of new hires be responsible for account setup and access during employee orientation.
- C. Grant authorization to individual systems as required with the approval of information security management.
- D. Adopt a standard template of access levels for all employees to be enacted upon hiring.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: MIXED QUESTIONS
NEW QUESTION # 123
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