Updated Managing-Cloud-Security Dumps Questions Are Available [2026] For Passing WGU Exam
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NEW QUESTION # 68
Which activity is within the scope of the cloud provider's role in the chain of custody?
- A. Classifying and analyzing data
- B. Collecting and preserving digital evidence
- C. Initiating and executing incident response
- D. Setting data backup and recovery policies
Answer: B
Explanation:
In cloud environments, the provider's role in thechain of custodyprimarily involvescollecting and preserving digital evidencewhen incidents or investigations occur. Because providers manage the infrastructure, they have direct access to logs, storage systems, and virtual machines necessary for evidence collection.
Backup policies and incident response may involve collaboration, but they remain customer responsibilities in many service models. Data classification and analysis are business-driven tasks, which customers must handle.
Providers must ensure that evidence collection is forensically sound and documented properly to maintain legal admissibility. This responsibility is critical in maintaining trust and ensuring compliance with laws and contractual obligations. It reinforces the shared responsibility model by clearly defining which aspects of digital forensics belong to the provider.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which management process involves multiple key holders, each with access to a portion of the information?
- A. Escrow
- B. Revocation
- C. Recovery
- D. Distribution
Answer: A
Explanation:
Key escrow is the management process that involves multiple key holders, where each party has access to a portion of the cryptographic information. Managing Cloud principles explain that key escrow is designed to ensure availability and recoverability of encrypted data while maintaining security controls.
In this model, encryption keys are stored securely with trusted third parties or divided among multiple custodians. No single individual has full access to the complete key, reducing the risk of misuse or compromise. Key escrow is often used to support compliance, lawful access requirements, and business continuity needs, ensuring that encrypted data can be recovered if the primary key holder is unavailable.
The other options do not fit this definition. Recovery refers to restoring keys or data, revocation disables compromised keys, and distribution focuses on delivering keys to authorized systems. Therefore, escrow is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 70
A user creates new financial documents that will be stored in the cloud. Which action should the user take before uploading the documents to protect them against threats such as packet capture and on-path attacks?
- A. Metadata labeling
- B. Change tracking
- C. Hashing
- D. Encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before transmitting sensitive financial data to the cloud, the best defense against interception threats like packet capture and man-in-the-middle attacks is encryption. Encryption protects data in transit by converting plain text into cipher text, which can only be deciphered with the correct keys.
Hashing provides integrity verification but does not secure confidentiality. Change tracking monitors modifications but does not prevent interception. Metadata labeling adds context but does not protect against on-path attackers.
Using strong encryption protocols (e.g., TLS) ensures that even if traffic is intercepted, the attacker cannot read the data. Encryption also aligns with compliance requirements such as PCI DSS, which mandates encryption for financial data during transmission. By encrypting before upload, the user ensures end-to-end confidentiality across potentially insecure networks.
NEW QUESTION # 71
An organization wants to track how often a file is accessed and by which users. Which information rights management (IRM) solution should the organization implement?
- A. Dynamic policy control
- B. Continuous auditing
- C. Persistent protection
- D. Automatic expiration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Continuous auditingin the context of Information Rights Management (IRM) allows organizations to monitor access events in real time. It records who accessed a file, when, and how often. This enables organizations to enforce accountability and detect unusual access patterns, which are crucial for both security monitoring and compliance reporting.
Automatic expiration sets a time limit on file availability, while dynamic policy control adjusts permissions based on context (such as location or device). Persistent protection ensures files remain encrypted and controlled wherever they travel. While each feature is valuable, only continuous auditing provides the tracking and visibility into usage required by the scenario.
This approach aligns with governance requirements, providing an audit trail that supports incident response and compliance with data protection regulations. Continuous auditing strengthens both operational security and accountability.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which cloud infrastructure risk is the responsibility of the cloud provider?
- A. Application security
- B. Data security
- C. Physical security
- D. Security governance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Physical security is a cloud infrastructure risk that is the responsibility of the cloud provider. Managing Cloud principles explain that providers are responsible for securing data center facilities, including buildings, hardware, power systems, and environmental controls.
This includes access controls, surveillance, guards, and protection against physical threats such as theft, vandalism, and natural disasters. Customers do not have physical access to cloud data centers and therefore rely entirely on the provider to manage these risks.
Data security and application security are typically shared responsibilities, while security governance is largely the customer's responsibility. Therefore, physical security is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 73
An organization is considering a cloud provider that has multivendor pathway connectivity. What does this feature provide?
- A. Connections to several electric providers that are not on the same grid
- B. Contracts with fuel providers
- C. Contracts with heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) providers
- D. Connections to several internet service providers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Multivendor pathway connectivityrefers to a cloud provider's ability to maintain connections with multiple internet service providers (ISPs). This ensures redundancy and reduces the risk of outages due to a single ISP failure.
Electric providers, fuel vendors, and HVAC contracts support facility resilience, but they are not directly tied to connectivity. The purpose of multivendor pathways is specifically to guarantee uninterrupted network access and resilience for customer workloads.
By maintaining ISP redundancy, cloud providers improve availability and meet SLA commitments. This capability is especially critical for enterprises requiring high uptime or operating in regions where connectivity disruptions are common. It also provides flexibility in bandwidth management and routing optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which cloud infrastructure component employs a hierarchical and distributed database that contains mappings?
- A. Resource sharing
- B. Domain Name System (DNS)
- C. Transport Layer Security (TLS)
- D. Clustered hosting
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Domain Name System (DNS) is the cloud infrastructure component that employs a hierarchical and distributed database containing mappings. Managing Cloud documentation explains that DNS maps human- readable domain names to IP addresses and other resource records.
DNS is structured hierarchically, starting from the root level and branching into top-level domains, second- level domains, and subdomains. This distributed architecture ensures scalability, fault tolerance, and efficient resolution of requests across the internet and cloud environments.
TLS secures communications, clustered hosting refers to compute architecture, and resource sharing describes cloud efficiency. Therefore, DNS is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) test requires the whole organization to participate in a scheduled disaster scenario without performing all of the actual tasks?
- A. Tabletop
- B. Full
- C. Parallel
- D. Dry run
Answer: D
Explanation:
A dry run disaster recovery plan test requires broad organizational participation in a simulated disaster scenario without executing all production-impacting tasks. Managing Cloud principles explain that dry run testing validates coordination, communication, and procedural readiness while avoiding the risks of full operational disruption.
In a dry run, teams follow documented recovery steps conceptually or in limited execution, verifying that dependencies, responsibilities, and sequencing are correct. This approach provides higher fidelity than tabletop exercises, which are discussion-based, while avoiding the operational risks of full or parallel tests.
Parallel tests involve running recovery systems alongside production, and full tests execute all recovery actions, often causing service disruption. Therefore, a dry run offers a balanced method to test preparedness across the organization without full execution.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A governmental data storage organization plans to relocate its primary North American data center to a new property with larger acreage. Which defense should the organization deploy at this location to prevent vehicles from causing harm to the data center?
- A. Fences
- B. Locks
- C. Bollards
- D. Cameras
Answer: C
Explanation:
Bollardsare physical barriers designed to prevent vehicles from ramming into or breaching secure facilities.
They are often placed at entrances, around perimeters, or in front of critical infrastructure like data centers.
Locks, cameras, and fences provide important physical security, but they cannot stop a high-speed vehicle from causing damage. Cameras record activity, fences create boundaries, and locks secure access points, but only bollards physically block or mitigate vehicle attacks.
Governmental and critical infrastructure sites commonly deploy bollards to protect against both accidental collisions and deliberate vehicle-borne attacks. Combined with layered security measures-such as surveillance and fencing-they enhance resilience against physical threats to sensitive data centers.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which cloud architecture model provides application development services?
- A. Security as a Service (SECaaS)
- B. Software as a Service (SaaS)
- C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides application development services in cloud environments. Managing Cloud documentation explains that PaaS delivers development frameworks, programming languages, libraries, databases, and testing tools required to build and deploy applications.
This model eliminates the need to manage infrastructure and operating systems, allowing developers to rapidly create, test, and deploy applications. PaaS also supports scalability and integration with other cloud services.
SaaS delivers completed applications, IaaS provides raw infrastructure, and SECaaS focuses on security services. Therefore, PaaS is the correct model for application development services.
NEW QUESTION # 78
An organization's leadership team gathered managers and key team members in each division to help create a disaster recovery plan. They realize they lack a complete understanding of the infrastructure and software needed to formulate the plan. Which action should they take to correct this issue?
- A. They should create a checklist of the necessary tasks.
- B. They should determine the criteria of a disaster.
- C. They should perform an inventory of assets.
- D. They should identify the key roles in a disaster.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Without a clear understanding of infrastructure and software, the leadership team must first conduct an inventory of assets. An asset inventory provides a comprehensive list of hardware, software, and services that support business operations.
Creating checklists, defining criteria, and assigning roles are important, but they rely on knowing what assets exist. Without an inventory, the disaster recovery plan would miss critical dependencies, making recovery incomplete or impossible.
Performing an inventory supports business impact analysis, risk assessments, and recovery prioritization. It ensures that all critical systems are accounted for and appropriate recovery strategies can be designed. Asset inventories are a foundational best practice for disaster recovery and continuity planning.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which cloud model is owned and operated by a vendor and then sold, leased, or rented to someone else?
- A. Community
- B. Hybrid
- C. Private
- D. Public
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Public cloud model is owned and operated by a vendor and offered to customers through sale, lease, or rental arrangements. Managing Cloud principles describe public cloud providers as entities that deliver shared infrastructure, platforms, or applications to multiple customers over the internet.
In this model, the cloud service provider manages the infrastructure, maintenance, and security of the environment, while customers consume services on a pay-as-you-go or subscription basis. Public clouds offer scalability, flexibility, and cost efficiency but provide less control over underlying systems.
Private clouds are dedicated to a single organization, hybrid clouds combine multiple models, and community clouds serve specific groups. Therefore, the public cloud model best fits the description.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which process involves identification and valuation of assets in order to determine their potential effect on cloud operations?
- A. Risk transfer
- B. Business impact analysis
- C. Vulnerability assessment
- D. Out-of-band validation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is the process that involves identifying and valuing assets to determine their potential effect on cloud operations. Managing Cloud documentation explains that BIA assesses how disruptions to systems, applications, or data impact business functions.
The process evaluates asset criticality, financial loss, operational downtime, and reputational damage. This information helps prioritize recovery strategies, define recovery time objectives, and guide risk management decisions in cloud environments.
Risk transfer shifts risk to third parties, vulnerability assessment identifies weaknesses, and out-of-band validation verifies controls independently. Therefore, business impact analysis is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which key management option typically needs to be on-premises and delivers the keys to the cloud over a dedicated connection?
- A. Hybrid
- B. Hardware security appliance
- C. Virtual appliance
- D. Cloud provider service
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Hybrid key management option typically requires key management infrastructure to remain on-premises while securely delivering cryptographic keys to the cloud through a dedicated and protected connection.
Managing Cloud guidance explains that hybrid key management models are designed for organizations that require maximum control over encryption keys while still leveraging cloud-based storage and processing.
In this model, encryption keys are generated, stored, and managed within the organization's own secure environment, reducing the risk of unauthorized access by external entities. Keys are provided to cloud services only when needed and often through secure channels such as private network connections. This approach supports strict compliance, regulatory, and data sovereignty requirements.
Other options do not meet this requirement. A hardware security appliance may be used on-premises but does not inherently define a hybrid cloud delivery model. Virtual appliances are typically cloud-resident, and cloud provider services manage keys entirely within the provider's infrastructure. Therefore, the hybrid option best aligns with on-premises key control combined with secure cloud integration.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which security risk is co-owned by the enterprise team and the cloud provider in the software as a service (SaaS) model?
- A. Physical
- B. Application
- C. Platform
- D. Data
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Software as a Service (SaaS) model, data security is a shared responsibility between the cloud provider and the enterprise. Managing Cloud principles explain that while the cloud service provider is responsible for securing the infrastructure, platform, and application itself, the customer retains responsibility for how data is used, classified, accessed, and governed.
The provider ensures data is protected through encryption mechanisms, availability controls, and secure storage, while the enterprise is responsible for data ownership, access permissions, identity management, and compliance with regulatory requirements. This shared ownership requires close coordination to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data.
Application, platform, and physical security are primarily the provider's responsibility in SaaS. Therefore, data is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 83
An organization is reviewing a contract from a cloud service provider and wants to ensure that all aspects of the contract are adhered to by the cloud service provider. Which control will allow the organization to verify that the cloud provider is meeting its obligations?
- A. Regulatory oversight
- B. Continuous monitoring
- C. Incident management
- D. Confidential computing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Continuous monitoring is the control that allows organizations to actively verify that a cloud provider is fulfilling contractual and compliance obligations. This involves automated collection and analysis of operational, security, and performance data. It enables organizations to ensure that service-level agreements (SLAs) are being honored and that compliance requirements are being met in real time.
While regulatory oversight is provided by external authorities and incident management is reactive in nature, continuous monitoring is a proactive approach. It allows customers to maintain visibility into provider operations. Confidential computing focuses on data protection but does not verify contract adherence.
By employing continuous monitoring, organizations establish transparency and accountability. It also supports audit processes by providing evidence that controls remain effective over time. This reduces risk associated with outsourcing critical functions to a cloud provider and ensures resilience against potential provider-side failures.
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which cloud platform detection and analysis methodology can be performed to determine whether other similar instances were potentially exposed during the same attack?
- A. Reviewing log data
- B. Examining network flows
- C. Examining configuration data
- D. Reviewing application logs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Examining configuration data is the appropriate methodology to determine whether other similar instances were potentially exposed during the same attack. Managing Cloud principles explain that configuration analysis identifies shared settings, permissions, or misconfigurations across cloud resources.
By reviewing configuration data, security teams can identify patterns such as overly permissive access controls, shared credentials, or insecure templates that may affect multiple instances. This helps assess blast radius and identify additional affected systems.
Application logs and network flows help investigate specific events, while generalized log review focuses on activity. Configuration analysis uniquely identifies systemic exposure. Therefore, examining configuration data is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which tool should a developer use to describe the requirements they have gathered for a code improvement they are tasked with making as part of a current release?
- A. Cases
- B. Notes
- C. Stories
- D. Cookies
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Agile development,user storiesare the standard way to capture requirements for new features or improvements. A user story describes the functionality from the perspective of the end user, ensuring that development aligns with business needs.
"Cases" might refer to test cases, which validate requirements, but they are not used to describe them.
Cookies are technical elements for web sessions, and notes are informal documentation.
User stories typically follow a format such as:"As a [role], I want [goal] so that [benefit]."This provides clarity, fosters communication between developers and stakeholders, and ensures that acceptance criteria can be defined and tested. Using stories as a requirement tool aligns with iterative, customer-focused release cycles.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following is an iterative software development methodology that focuses on achieving customer satisfaction by delivering the software early in the process and welcoming changing requirements from the customer, even late in the process?
- A. Agile
- B. Spiral
- C. Waterfall
- D. Lean
Answer: A
Explanation:
Agileis an iterative software development methodology designed to prioritize customer satisfaction, adaptability, and incremental delivery. Agile teams deliver small, working pieces of software frequently, ensuring feedback is incorporated throughout the process. This flexibility allows late-stage requirement changes to be accommodated without derailing the project.
Waterfall is a sequential approach with limited flexibility. Spiral combines iterative development with risk analysis, but it is not as customer-focused as Agile. Lean emphasizes efficiency and waste reduction but does not center on continuous delivery and adaptability.
Agile frameworks such as Scrum and Kanban embody this philosophy, supporting faster innovation, better collaboration, and responsiveness to evolving business needs.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which action should be taken to ensure that unencrypted network traffic is protected?
- A. Data should be transmitted after it is compressed and password protected using gunzip (GZ).
- B. Data should be transmitted using the secure socket layer (SSL) protocol.
- C. Data should be transmitted using the transport layer security (TLS) protocol.
- D. Data should be transmitted using generic routing encapsulation (GRE).
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most effective way to protect network traffic from interception isTransport Layer Security (TLS). TLS provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication by encrypting data as it travels between client and server. Unlike older protocols like SSL, which is now deprecated due to vulnerabilities, TLS is the industry- standard protocol endorsed by modern security frameworks.
Compression and password protection through GZ is not a reliable method, as it does not offer strong encryption or resistance against sophisticated interception attacks. GRE is a tunneling protocol and does not inherently provide encryption.
By implementing TLS, organizations ensure protection against on-path attacks, replay attacks, and packet sniffing. TLS also supports features such as forward secrecy and certificate-based authentication, ensuring both secure data transmission and mutual trust between endpoints. In compliance-driven industries like healthcare and finance, TLS is explicitly mandated for protecting sensitive information in transit.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Who should be part of formal tasking when conducting testing for business continuity management?
- A. Moderators
- B. Organizational personnel
- C. Governing bodies
- D. External consultants
Answer: C
Explanation:
Governing bodies should be formally tasked during business continuity management testing. Managing Cloud principles explain that governance entities provide oversight, accountability, and assurance that continuity objectives align with organizational strategy and risk tolerance.
Their involvement ensures testing outcomes are reviewed at the appropriate level, deficiencies are addressed, and resources are allocated for remediation. Governance participation also supports compliance and audit requirements.
Operational staff and consultants may participate, but formal tasking resides with governing bodies.
Therefore, governing bodies are the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which requirement in the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) is included to protect private data?
- A. Independent auditor
- B. Limited scope definition
- C. Information security plan
- D. Gap analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Information Security Plan is a key requirement of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) designed to protect private customer data. Managing Cloud guidance explains that GLBA requires financial institutions to develop, implement, and maintain a comprehensive written information security program.
This plan must describe administrative, technical, and physical safeguards used to protect customer information. It includes risk assessment, security controls, monitoring, and incident response procedures. The objective is to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive financial data throughout its lifecycle.
The other options are not explicit GLBA requirements. Independent audits and gap analyses may support compliance efforts but are not mandated components. Limited scope definition is not a GLBA safeguard.
Therefore, the information security plan is the correct requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which data management activity is considered legal fair use of a copyrighted item?
- A. Performing the work publicly
- B. Exporting the work
- C. Broadcasting the work
- D. Reporting the work on the news
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reporting the work on the news is considered legal fair use of a copyrighted item. Managing Cloud guidance explains that fair use allows limited use of copyrighted material without permission when the purpose is commentary, criticism, education, or news reporting.
In news reporting, copyrighted material may be referenced or partially reproduced to inform the public, provided it does not replace the original work or cause financial harm to the copyright owner. This principle supports transparency and public awareness while balancing intellectual property rights.
The other activities typically require authorization from the copyright holder. Performing a work publicly, exporting it, or broadcasting it generally involves distribution or commercial use, which falls outside fair use protections. Therefore, reporting the work in the news is the correct example of legal fair use.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which characteristic could affect the audit process for a customer of a cloud service provider?
- A. Lack of physical access to the cloud infrastructure
- B. Utilization constraints on the bandwidth imposed by the cloud service vendor
- C. Limits for up-time of the hosted system
- D. Restrictions on the data storage options offered by the cloud service provider
Answer: A
Explanation:
The lack of physical access to cloud infrastructure significantly affects the audit process for cloud customers. Managing Cloud guidance explains that customers do not have direct access to cloud data centers, servers, or networking equipment, which limits their ability to perform traditional on-site audits.
As a result, customers must rely on third-party audit reports, certifications, and attestations provided by the cloud service provider. This changes how evidence is collected and verified during audits and requires auditors to assess assurance reports instead of physical inspections.
Bandwidth constraints, uptime limits, and storage options impact performance and architecture decisions but do not directly affect audit methodology. Therefore, the absence of physical access is the primary audit- related characteristic.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which concept focuses on operating highly available workloads in the cloud?
- A. Resource hierarchy
- B. Reliability
- C. Security
- D. Operational excellence
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reliabilityin cloud design ensures workloads can recover quickly from disruptions and continue operating as expected. This concept focuses on high availability, fault tolerance, and disaster recovery. Reliability requires implementing redundancy, backup strategies, and robust monitoring.
Security ensures data protection, operational excellence covers continuous improvement, and resource hierarchy refers to organizational structures, but none focus specifically on availability and resilience.
By prioritizing reliability, organizations design cloud architectures capable of withstanding failures at multiple layers-compute, storage, networking, and even regions. This design principle ensures customer trust and compliance with service-level agreements.
NEW QUESTION # 93
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